From a Jewish perspective, what does the Bible teach about polygamy? Here is a quote from the book Biblical Literacy: The Most Important People, Events, And Ideas Of The Hebrew Bible by Rabbi Joseph Telushkin (pages 410-414).
Quote:
Biblical law permits a man to have more than one wife (Deuteronomy 21:17); indeed many of the Bible's most prominent figures (e.g., Abraham, Jacob, David, and Solomon) practiced polygamy. Since polygamy was permitted throughout the ancient Near East, this should come as no surprise. What is significant, however, is that biblical narrative, as opposed to biblical law, depicts multiple marriages as almost always leading to multiple miseries.
Abraham takes a concubine-wife because of his wife Sarah's barrenness. Indeed, it is at Sarah's insistence that he takes her servant Hagar as a wife, for, as Sarah tells him: "Perhaps I shall have a son through her" (Genesis 16:2). When Hagar becomes pregnant, she starts treating Sarah with contempt. Sarah blames Abraham for Hagar's arrogance and Abraham, wishing to avoid marital conflict, tells his wife to treat Hagar as she wishes...
Some years later, Sarah finally gives birth to her own son, whereupon she forces Abraham to expel Hagar and Ishamel. Sarah speaks of Hagar in the most contemptuous of tones: "Cast out that slave-woman and her son, for the son of that slave shall not share in the inheritance with my son Isaac."...
...Are there any happy polygamous marriages described in the Bible? No, although sometimes we are given no information about a marriage, so we have no way of knowing whether or not it was happy (for example, see Lamech, the Bible's first polygamist [Genesis 4:19,23).
In those instances, however, where the text does supply details about a polygamous marriage, it either is miserable for at least one partner (Hagar and Leah), creates hatred between the children (Joseph and his brothers, David's sons), or wreaks havoc with the husband's character (Solomon).
There is yet one further indication that the Bible's preference is for "one man, one wife." When God created the world, he populates it with only two people, one of each sex. He could have given Adam a second wife but doesn't. Furthermore, the Bible's very first reference to marriage presupposes a state of monogamy: "Therefore shall a man leave his father and mother and cling to his wife, so that they become one flesh" (Genesis 2:24).
Why, then, does the Bible permit polygamy?
The nature of biblical law generally is evolutionary rather than revolutionary (except when it comes to uprooting idolatry, with which the Bible refuses to brook any compromise). To have categorically outlawed multiple marriages in a world where they were widely practiced would most likely have lead to an increase in adulterous affairs, or to affairs with unmarried women to whom the men would have no obligations. Better, therefore, for a man to have several wives, to each of whom he has legal obligations.
However, by depicting in considerable detail the misery generated within these marriages, biblical narrative makes it clear that it is far better for a man to have only one wife. As we shall see in other instances (e.g., the laws favoring the firstborn son versus the narratives favoring the younger sons; see entry 201), biblical narrative ultimately influences Jewish life more than biblical law. The Talmud, compiled during the early centuries of the Common Era, lists well over one thousand rabbis. We know of none who practiced polygamy. During the tenth century, a rabbinic ban was issued outlawing polygamy for all Jews living in Europe. There is little question that the rabbis felt their act was in consonance with the Bibleâ??s ethical spirit. This ban, uniformly accepted in Jewish life today, represents perhaps the most dramatic victory of biblical narrative over biblical law. (Analytics)
Rabinu Gershom's ban of polygamy in the Middle Ages was adopted only by Ashkenazic Jewry - and specifically was not recognized by Sephardic Jewry (that is, it wasn't applied to all of the Jews in Europe, only a certain subset of them). Sephardic Jewry also did not accept the Takkanot which elevated Gershom's ban to a level near the Law of Moses.
The Old Testament required polygamy in certain rare circumstances involving the practice of Levirate marriage. That this occurred is well known from the more than 100 clarifications on the practice of Levirate marriage contained in Talmudic writings. This issue was specifically raised during the middle ages to contest Gershom's ban - and was seen very vocally in the rulings of Rabbis Speyer, Wurms, and Mainz. The argument was quite clear that Gershom was attempting to supersede Moses (and it was these arguments that prompted the Takkanot).
Not all polygamous marriages in the Old Testament are portrayed as causing misery. The article notes this. But the presumption is that they are all miserable - although certainly there are room for alternatives - i.e. that the miserable ones were perhaps more noteworthy.
The other issue on which disagreement was generally raised was the commandment to have posterity. Under Gershom's ban, a man could be forced by the religious community to divorce his barren wife so that he could marry another woman and have children. This doesn't seem to me to be the recipe for a happy domestic environment in some circumstances.
There were rabbis who were polygamous - and in fact there were polygamous rabbis who were critical of other rabbis because they were not polygamous even though it was rare.
It seems to be at times that polygamy was implemented to avoid adultery.
Also See:
Does Jewish law forbid polygamy?
Why does Torah law allow polygamy?
Polygamy
